refer to table 18-7. what is the market price of the final good

Sample test

Multiple Choice

Identify the alphabetic character of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____    1.   The price elasticity of demand is the ratio of the

a.

accented change in quantity demanded to the accented change in cost.

b.

absolute change in cost to the absolute change in quantity demanded.

c.

percentage change in quantity demanded to the percentage change in price.

d.

percentage modify in price to the percentage change in quantity demanded.

____    two.   If the elasticity coefficient is v, this ways that

a.

the percentage change in quantity demanded is five times the percentage alter in price.

b.

if quantity demanded fell by one percent, price would autumn by v percent.

c.

if price was raised 5 per centum, quantity demanded would fall by 5 per centum.

d.

if price was raised v percent, quantity demanded would ascension v percent.

e.

none of the above

____    3.   Price rises from $10 to $16, and the quantity demanded falls from 100 units to 80 units. What is the coefficient of the price elasticity of demand between the two prices?

a.

0.22

b.

0.48

c.

2.08

d.

1.00

e.

none of the above

____    4.   If the percentage alter in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price, need is

a.

inelastic.

b.

unit rubberband.

c.

elastic.

d.

perfectly inelastic.

____    5.   Suppose at a price of $4 and at a price of $viii, John purchases 40 units of good Ten. Given this information, we know that

a.

John'southward entire demand curve for practiced Ten is perfectly rubberband.

b.

John's need for adept X is inelastic.

c.

John's demand for good X is perfectly inelastic between the prices of $4 and $8.

d.

John'southward demand for good X is perfectly elastic betwixt the prices of $four and $8.

e.

John's demand for practiced X is unit elastic.

____    six.   If the price of good X falls and the demand for good Ten is unit elastic, then the pct rise in quantity demanded is __________ the percentage fall in price, and total revenue __________.

a.

greater than; rises

b.

less than; falls

c.

equal to; remains constant

d.

greater than; falls

due east.

less than; rises

____    7.   Those who desire to use college cigarette taxes as a means of reducing smoking would adopt the demand curve for cigarettes to be

a.

perfectly inelastic.

b.

inelastic.

c.

unit elastic.

d.

slightly rubberband.

eastward.

highly elastic.

____    eight.   For a certain practiced, when price rises from $90 to $100, quantity demanded falls from 100,000 to 85,000. The coefficient of price elasticity of demand here is

a.

0.65.

b.

0.98.

c.

0.796.

d.

1.54.

____    ix.   The toll elasticity of need is lowest for which of the following goods?

a.

Toyotas

b.

cars

c.

Fords

d.

Chevrolets

e.

Information technology is betwixt a, c, and d.

Exhibit five-one

____   ten.   Refer to Exhibit five-1. The demand curve D1 is

a.

inelastic.

b.

elastic.

c.

unit elastic.

d.

perfectly elastic.

eastward.

perfectly inelastic.

Showroom five-two

____   eleven.   Refer to Exhibit 5-2. The market for good X is initially in equilibrium at $v. The authorities then places a per-unit of measurement revenue enhancement on practiced Ten, every bit shown past the shift of Sone to Due south2. As a consequence, the equilibrium cost

a.

rises from $5.00 to $6.25.

b.

falls from $v.00 to $4.00.

c.

remains abiding at $5.00.

d.

none of the higher up

____   12.   Refer to Exhibit 5-ii. The marketplace for good X is initially in equilibrium at $5. The government then places a per-unit tax on good 10, as shown by the shift of South1 to Sii. What is the per-unit of measurement revenue enhancement equal to?

a.

$i.00

b.

$two.25

c.

$0.25

d.

$four.00

e.

$one.25

____   13.   Refer to Showroom 5-2. The market for good X is initially in equilibrium at $five. The government then places a per-unit of measurement tax on good 10, every bit shown by the shift of Southward1 to S2. Approximately what percent of the tax do producers terminate up paying?

a.

55 percent

b.

45 percent

c.

70 percent

d.

63 pct

east.

25 percent

____   14.   Economists Alchian and Demsetz advise that firms are formed when

a.

the sum of what individuals can produce alone is greater than what they can produce every bit a team.

b.

someone wants to earn profits.

c.

someone comes up with the idea that customers will buy a new production.

d.

the sum of what individuals tin can produce as a team is greater than the sum of what they can produce lone.

____   xv.   The more people involved in team production of a given quantity of output, the __________ the price to whatever 1 person from shirking, and then the __________ the probability of shirking occurring.

a.

higher; higher

b.

higher; lower

c.

lower; higher

d.

lower; lower

____   xvi.   The easiest style for stockholders to monitor their managers is to

a.

check the value of their stock in the newspaper.

b.

study the records of the corporation to run into how things look.

c.

hold a company picnic two or three times a year.

d.

nourish the almanac meeting of the stockholders.

____   17.   A cost of resources used in production for which no bodily monetary payment is made is a(n) __________ toll.

a.

tacit

b.

implicit

c.

covert

d.

explicit

____   18.   Five months agone Wilson opened upwards a health club. Which of the following is an implicit price related to the health club?

a.

Wilson paid $120 for an exterior laundry service to clean the towels used at the society.

b.

Wilson paid $100 for the pest control exterminator to spray the health club.

c.

Wilson previously worked equally an auditor, earning $3,000 a month.

d.

Wilson usually eats four hamburgers a twenty-four hour period, priced at $3 each.

____   19.   Which of the following statements is false?

a.

Coin must alter hands before a price tin can exist incurred.

b.

No monetary payment takes place when an implicit cost is incurred.

c.

Costs may be either explicit costs or implicit costs.

d.

Cost implies that a cede has been made.

____   20.   Consider the following information nigh a business Diane opened last year: price = $4, quantity sold = 12,000; implicit price = $14,000; explicit cost = $xx,000. What was Diane'southward economic turn a profit?

a.

$28,000

b.

$34,000

c.

$14,000

d.

$42,000

____   21.   Which of the post-obit statements is true?

a.

Explicit costs always equal implicit costs.

b.

Cipher economic profit is a smaller dollar figure than normal turn a profit.

c.

Zero economic profit is a larger dollar figure than normal profit.

d.

Maxim that a firm earned null economic profit is the same equally saying it earned normal turn a profit.

e.

none of the above

____   22.   Joe is the owner-operator of Joe'southward Haircuts Unlimited. Last twelvemonth he earned $100,000 in total revenues and paid $65,000 to his employees and suppliers. During the class of the twelvemonth, he received iii offers to work for other barbers, with the highest offer being $forty,000 per year. What are Joe's implicit costs?

a.

$105,000

b.

$65,000

c.

$25,000

d.

$40,000

e.

$lx,000

____   23.   Joe is the owner-operator of Joe's Haircuts Unlimited. Concluding yr he earned $100,000 in full revenues and paid $65,000 to his employees and suppliers. During the form of the twelvemonth, he received three offers to piece of work for other barbers, with the highest offer existence $40,000 per year. What are Joe'southward economic profits?

a.

$0

b.

$25,000

c.

-$five,000

d.

$40,000

e.

$35,000

____   24.   If a firm earns normal turn a profit, then it has generated revenues

a.

equal to the sum of implicit and explicit costs.

b.

greater than total opportunity costs.

c.

sufficient to cover explicit costs, but non implicit costs.

d.

sufficient to cover implicit costs, merely not explicit costs.

____   25.   A fixed input is an input whose quantity

a.

can be changed as output changes in the short run.

b.

cannot be inverse as output changes in the short run.

c.

cannot be inverse as output changes in the long run.

d.

a and c

eastward.

b and c

____   26.   Average fixed price

a.

is usually greater at lower levels of output than at higher levels.

b.

does not change equally output changes.

c.

exists simply in the short run.

d.

is commonly greater at college levels of output than at lower levels of output.

e.

a and c

____   27.   Costs that do non modify with output are chosen __________ costs.

a.

marginal

b.

average

c.

stock-still

d.

variable

____   28.   Which of the post-obit statements is faux?

a.

Since (full) fixed costs are abiding as output changes in the short run, it follows that average fixed cost is constant in the brusque run.

b.

Marginal price is the cost of producing an boosted unit of output.

c.

Changes in variable costs are reflected dollar-for-dollar in changes in total cost.

d.

Fixed costs exist in the short run, just non in the long run.

____   29.   At 200 units of output, full cost is $36,000 and total variable cost is $24,000. What does full fixed price equal at 200 units?

a.

$38,000

b.

$ten,000

c.

$12,000

d.

$50

e.

none of the above

____   thirty.   "Equally additional units of a variable input are added to a fixed input, eventually the marginal physical product of the variable input will decline." This is a statement of the

a.

constabulary of supply.

b.

average-marginal rule.

c.

police of diminishing marginal utility.

d.

police force of diminishing marginal returns.

____   31.   The law of diminishing marginal returns is

a.

the same as economies of scale.

b.

the same as the constabulary of diminishing marginal utility.

c.

important for long-run economical assay.

d.

relevant to the product of goods, but not services.

eastward.

none of the in a higher place

____   32.   Which of the following curves should one wait at to detect the police force of diminishing marginal returns?

a.

the boilerplate fixed cost bend

b.

the total fixed cost curve

c.

the marginal physical product curve

d.

the long run average full toll bend

Exhibit 8-one

(i)

(two)

(3)

(4)

Variable

Input

Fixed

Input

Quantity

of Output

MPP of

Variable Input

0

i

0

1

one

twenty

A

2

1

41

B

iii

1

63

C

4

1

86

D

5

one

108

E

6

one

129

F

____   33.   Refer to Showroom 8-ane. The numbers that become in blanks A and B are, respectively,

a.

twenty and 22.

b.

0 and 21.

c.

twenty and 61.

d.

1 and two.

e.

20 and 21.

____   34.   Refer to Exhibit 8-1. Diminishing marginal returns set in with the add-on of which unit of measurement of the variable input?

a.

the fourth

b.

the 5th

c.

the sixth

d.

the 2d

____   35.   If labor is the variable input, then MC equals

a.

MPP divided by the wage rate..

b.

average variable (labor) costs divided by MPP.

c.

average variable (labor) costs multiplied past MPP.

d.

the wage rate divided by MPP.

e.

the wage rate multiplied past MPP.

____   36.   If the average variable toll curve is falling,

a.

the MC bend must be below it.

b.

marginal cost is greater than average variable cost.

c.

the MC curve is necessarily falling.

d.

the MC curve is necessarily horizontal (neither rising nor falling).

e.

the MC curve is necessarily rising.

____   37.   Which of the post-obit statements is true?

a.

If the marginal cost curve is above the AFC curve, the AFC curve must be rising.

b.

Average total price equals average variable cost minus boilerplate fixed price.

c.

As output increases, the average variable cost bend gets closer to the average total cost curve.

d.

The AFC curve is horizontal as output increases.

Exhibit 8-ii

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(v)

Variable Input

Price per Variable Input

Full Fixed Cost

Output

Marginal Cost

ane

$x

$100

xx

two

$10

$100

21

A

three

$10

$100

23

B

4

$ten

$100

26

C

5

$10

$100

28

D

____   38.   Refer to Exhibit eight-ii. The dollar amounts that get in blanks C and D are, respectively,

a.

$10.00 and $one.00.

b.

$10.00 and $3.33.

c.

$five.00 and $10.00.

d.

$x.00 and $10.00.

e.

$iii.33 and $five.00.

____   39.   Refer to Showroom viii-ii. The dollar amounts that get in blanks A and B are, respectively,

a.

$10.00 and $iii.33.

b.

$10.00 and $5.00.

c.

$ten.00 and $10.00.

d.

$1.00 and $5.00.

e.

$two.00 and $10.00.

Situation 8-1

Diane'south Donuts will begin selling donuts next week. Diane figures that the ingredients necessary to make donuts volition toll $.05 per donut. She has paid $4,400 for the donut-making machinery and one year's rent.

____   40.   Refer to Situation 8-l. What will Diane's average variable costs exist if she sells 2,500 donuts?

a.

$0.038

b.

$0.088

c.

$0.138

d.

$0.050

e.

There is not plenty information to answer the question.

____   41.   Refer to State of affairs 8-l. What volition Diane's average fixed costs exist if she sells 2,500 donuts in one week and then goes out of business?

a.

$1.76

b.

$one.81

c.

$i.08

d.

$84.62

due east.

In that location is not enough data to reply the question.

____   42.   Average variable cost equals

a.

boilerplate fixed price plus average total price.

b.

total variable cost divided by the change in output.

c.

total variable price divided by output.

d.

toll of the variable input times the quantity of the variable input.

eastward.

a and c

Showroom 8-three

Variable Input

Fixed Input

Output

Marginal Concrete Product of Variable Input

Fixed Cost

Variable Toll

Marginal Cost

(units)

(units)

(units)

(units)

(dollars)

(dollars)

(dollars)

0

1

      0

$50

       $0

1

1

    10

A

$50

     $20

F

2

ane

    25

B

$50

     $twoscore

G

3

1

    45

C

$l

     $60

H

four

i

    lx

D

$50

     $80

I

5

1

    seventy

East

$l

   $100

J

____   43.   Refer to Exhibit viii-3. The average fixed cost of producing 20 units of output is

a.

$5.00.

b.

$20.00.

c.

$l.00.

d.

$2.l.

e.

indeterminable with the information given.

____   44.   Refer to Showroom eight-three. The marginal physical product figures in blanks B and C are, respectively,

a.

10 and 15.

b.

fifteen and twenty.

c.

20 and 15.

d.

15 and 10.

e.

x and ten.

Exhibit 8-4

____   45.   Refer to Exhibit 8-four. Curve B is a(northward) __________ cost bend.

a.

marginal

b.

average variable

c.

average full

d.

boilerplate fixed

____   46.   If explicit costs equal $30,000, implicit costs equal $45,000, and accounting profit equals $23,000, it follows that full acquirement equals __________ and economic profit equals __________.

a.

$75,000; $17,000

b.

$53,000; -$22,000

c.

$68,000; $25,000

d.

$22,000; -$68,000

due east.

At that place is non enough data given to respond this question.

____   47.   If AFC is $8 at a quantity of output of 100 units, and ATC is $ix at the aforementioned quantity of output, it follows that

a.

marginal cost is $10.

b.

AVC is $100.

c.

total toll is $1,700.

d.

marginal toll is $100.

e.

none of the above

____   48.   There is a link between product and toll. Nosotros know this because

a.

there are two periods of production, the short run and the long run.

b.

what happens to MPP directs what happens to MC.

c.

average fixed toll continually declines over output.

d.

average productivity falls when marginal productivity is below it.

e.

none of the in a higher place

____   49.   Unit of measurement cost refers to

a.

average variable cost.

b.

average stock-still cost.

c.

marginal price.

d.

average total cost.

e.

c or d

____   50.   In the theory of perfect contest,

a.

sellers of the product are not influenced by other sellers and therefore take virtually complete control over the production and pricing of their product.

b.

buyers of the production may have a preference as to whom they purchase from based on brand loyalty.

c.

buyers and sellers of the product know everything that in that location is to know most the product.

d.

it tin can be quite expensive for a firm to enter this type of marketplace, just in one case the firm is established, information technology volition be a profitable venture.

____   51.   Perfectly competitive industries are

a.

difficult to enter because there are already so many producers in the industry.

b.

not specially appealing or bonny to enter because there tend to be so many buyers that information technology is hard to deal with them.

c.

relatively like shooting fish in a barrel to enter but not so like shooting fish in a barrel to exit from.

d.

a and b

e.

none of the higher up

____   52.   Perfectly competitive firms are price takers for all of the post-obit reasons except that

a.

each business firm is quite small relative to the total market supply.

b.

buyers and sellers take all the necessary information most prices, etc.

c.

the product is homogeneous.

d.

barriers to exit forcefulness firms to sell at the marketplace price.

____   53.   The demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm

a.

is downwards sloping.

b.

is upward sloping.

c.

is perfectly horizontal.

d.

is perfectly vertical.

due east.

may be downwards or upward sloping, depending upon the blazon of production offered for sale.

____   54.   In the theory of perfect competition,

a.

the marketplace need curve is horizontal.

b.

the unmarried firm's need curve is horizontal.

c.

the single house'due south demand curve is downward sloping.

d.

a and b

e.

a and c

____   55.   The price at which a perfectly competitive firm sells its product is determined by

a.

the individual seller based on his costs of production and his profit margin.

b.

all sellers and buyers of the production, collectively.

c.

the buyers of the production, because there are so many sellers that they cannot concur on a price.

d.

the government, because there are so many buyers and sellers of the product that together they cannot concur on the toll.

____   56.   Marginal acquirement is

a.

full acquirement divided by the quantity of output.

b.

full turn a profit minus total costs.

c.

the modify in total output brought about past using an additional unit of a variable input.

d.

the change in total revenue brought about by selling an additional unit of the good.

east.

the change in full revenue minus the change in total costs.

Exhibit 9-1

(ane)

(2)

(3)

Toll

Quantity Sold

Marginal Revenue

$12

100

$12

101

A

$12

102

B

$12

103

C

$12

104

D

____   57.   Refer to Exhibit 9-i. The dollar amounts that go in blanks A and B are, respectively,

a.

$1 and $12.

b.

$12 and $12.

c.

$12 and $10.

d.

$12 and $11.

____   58.   Refer to Exhibit 9-i. The data are relevant to a perfectly competitive business firm because

a.

its full acquirement is different at unlike levels of quantities sold.

b.

its marginal revenue is the same at all quantities sold.

c.

it must lower price to sell additional units of its product.

d.

marginal acquirement is greater than price.

____   59.   If, for the last unit of a adept produced past a perfectly competitive firm, MR > MC, then in producing that unit the business firm

a.

added more to total costs than information technology added to full acquirement.

b.

added more than to full revenue than it added to total costs.

c.

added an equal amount to both total revenue and full costs.

d.

maximized profits or minimized losses.

Exhibit 9-2

____   sixty.   Refer to Exhibit 9-2. If the business firm produces the quantity of output at which marginal acquirement (MR) equals marginal cost (MC), is it guaranteed maximum profit or minimized loss?

a.

Yes, when MR = MC, it follows that MR - MC = 0, and thus the firm maximizes profit and minimizes losses.

b.

No, at the quantity of output at which MR = MC, it could be the example that average variable cost is greater than price and the business firm would do better to close down.

c.

Yeah, when the firm produces the quantity at which MR = MC, it has maximized both acquirement and profit.

d.

Aye, considering if the MC bend is rising, the average total price curve always lies below it and thus profit is earned.

Exhibit nine-iii

(1)

(2)

(iii)

Price

Quantity Sold

Total Cost

$10

40

$374

$10

41

$376

$10

42

$380

$ten

43

$385

$10

44

$390

$10

45

$400

$10

46

$412

$10

47

$425

____   61.   Refer to Showroom 9-3. What quantity of output would the profit-maximizing house produce?

a.

41 units

b.

42 units

c.

43 units

d.

45 units

east.

none of the above

____   62.   Consider the following data: equilibrium price = $ten, quantity of output produced = 100 units, average total cost = $viii, and average variable toll = $7. What will the firm do and why?

a.

Shut down in the short run, considering it is taking a loss of $200.

b.

Proceed to produce in the brusk run, because price is greater than average variable price.

c.

Shut downwards in the curt run, considering average variable cost is less than average total toll.

d.

Continue to produce in the short run, because firms are always stuck with having to produce in the short run.

____   63.   Consider the post-obit data: equilibrium toll = $7.50, quantity of output produced = 100 units, average total cost = $nine, and average variable cost = $eight. What will the firm do and why?

a.

Shut downward in the brusque run, considering price is beneath average variable toll.

b.

Shut down in the short run, because it will be taking a loss of $50.

c.

Continue to produce in the short run, because toll is greater than boilerplate variable price.

d.

Continue to produce in the short run, considering firms are always stuck with having to produce in the brusque run.

e.

none of the above

Exhibit nine-4

____   64.   Refer to Exhibit ix-4. The firm sells its product at P1 and produces Q1. Given this situation,

a.

total variable cost is equal to areas 1 + 2.

b.

full acquirement is equal to area 1.

c.

full cost is equal to areas 2 + 3.

d.

a and b

e.

a, b, and c

____   65.   Refer to Exhibit 9-4. Where tin can you notice the everyman cost that will motivate the house to produce Qone in the short run?

a.

at the horizontal line running to "ATC"

b.

at the horizontal line running to "AVC"

c.

Pone

d.

$0

____   66.   Assume the following for a certain industry: (l) there is no incentive for firms to enter or exit the industry; (two) for some firms in the industry, brusk-run average total cost is greater than long-run boilerplate total cost at the level of output where marginal revenue equals marginal toll; (3) all firms in the industry are currently producing the quantity of output at which marginal acquirement equals marginal cost. Is the industry in long-run competitive equilibrium?

a.

Yep.

b.

No, because of number 2.

c.

No, considering of numbers 2 and iii.

d.

No, because of numbers one and 2.

e.

No, because of numbers 1, two, and 3.

____   67.   If the perfectly competitive firm is producing an output level at which toll equals marginal cost, it is

a.

earning profits.

b.

taking losses.

c.

earning normal turn a profit.

d.

There is not enough information to answer the question.


Sample exam

Answer Department

MULTIPLE Pick

            i.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Easy

            ii.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

            3.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate        NOT:  NEW

            iv.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

            5.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

            half dozen.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

            vii.   ANS:  Eastward                    DIF:    Piece of cake

            viii.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate        Not:  NEW

            9.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           10.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Easy

           eleven.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

           12.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           13.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Difficult

           fourteen.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           15.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Easy

           16.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

           17.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Easy

           xviii.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Like shooting fish in a barrel

           xix.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

           20.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           21.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           22.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           23.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           24.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

           25.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           26.   ANS:  Due east                    DIF:    Moderate

           27.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Like shooting fish in a barrel

           28.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

           29.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate        Non:  NEW

           xxx.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           31.   ANS:  E                    DIF:    Moderate

           32.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           33.   ANS:  E                    DIF:    Moderate

           34.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           35.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           36.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Difficult

           37.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           38.   ANS:  Eastward                    DIF:    Hard

           39.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Hard

           40.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           41.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

           42.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           43.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           44.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           45.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           46.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Hard

           47.   ANS:  Eastward                    DIF:    Difficult

           48.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           49.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           50.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           51.   ANS:  E                    DIF:    Moderate

           52.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           53.   ANS:  C                    DIF:    Moderate

           54.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           55.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           56.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Piece of cake

           57.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           58.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           59.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           threescore.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Hard

           61.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

           62.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Moderate

           63.   ANS:  A                    DIF:    Moderate

           64.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Difficult

           65.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Hard

           66.   ANS:  B                    DIF:    Hard

           67.   ANS:  D                    DIF:    Moderate

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Source: https://public.csusm.edu/rarnold/Fall%202005/Econ%20250/sample%20test%202.htm

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